Dear Kiara,
I’m still stuck on PcM Quiz Break 12. My first question was about understanding the explanation for why the ‘standard of care’ was the right answer. Although you have explained it, and your education specialist weighed in, I still don’t quite understand it. The explanation asserts that it is important to align the standard of care in your agreements. However, the C401 contains a built-in safeguard if, perchance, the agreements do not align.
In the C401 agreement, Article 2.1 under the Consultant’s Responsibilities it says:
‘If the standard of care set forth in the Prime Agreement for the Architect’s services differs from the standard of care set forth in this Section for the Consultant’s services, the Consultant shall perform its services consistent with the standard of care in the Prime Agreement.’ So the standard of care in the Prime Agreement (B101) overrules the consultant’s standard of care in the C401, whatever that may be.
Therefore, although it is advisable, it is not crucial that the standard of care in the C401 matches the B101 exactly. This stipulation guarantees that the standard of care will align with both agreements even if one or the other contract differs.
Also, in your video ‘Negotiating the C401 Agreement’ @8:14 it says, ’ The B101 agreement will be incorporated by reference into the C401 agreement, so they are in alignment for your protection.’ This is another indication of an implicit safeguard in case they don’t.
On the other hand, in your lecture video 'Contracting with Consultants Using the C401’ @ 6:46, it says, ‘…the level of service AND the scope of work that each consultant provides NEEDS TO MATCH EXACTLY what the architect has agreed to in B101.’ which is why I chose ‘scope of work’ as my answer to this question.
However, a little further along in the same video @7:48 It says, ‘Remember, the architect agreed to design the entire project for the owner and hires consultants to complete portions of the design.’ I think this caveat is meant to distinguish ‘scope of services’ from ‘scope of work’, since ‘scope of services’ must match exactly. And, in fact this is the reasoning behind ‘scope of work’ being the wrong answer in the question. This reasoning is contradicted by the statement @6:46.
I feel like this question is unnecessarily confusing. Any insight or tips you might have on how to approach these types of questions, so that I can confidently recognize the most accurate answer in the future, would be greatly appreciated. My own reasoning does not seem to align with the expected logic of the exam.
-Michelle